Consider an asymmetric random walk $(X_n)$ in which the initial point is one ($X_0 = 1$). It increases by $a$ with a probability of 0.3, remains the same with a probability of 0.4, and decreases by $b$ with a probability of 0.3, where $a<b$ and $a,b \in \mathbb{R}$. Also, suppose this process stops once $X_n \geq \lambda$.
For example, $a=0.3$, $b=0.5$, and $\lambda=1.4$. How can I calculate the probability of this process stopping? That is, what would be the probability of $X_n$ ever getting bigger than $\lambda=1.4$? Since the probability of stopping at the second period is $0.3\cdot 0.3$, it would be greater than zero. Also, since it is supermartingale, by the maximal inequality for supermartingale,
\begin{equation*} P(\sup X_n \geq 1.4) \leq \frac{\mathbb{E} X_0 }{1.4} = \frac{1}{1.4}. \end{equation*} Thus, it would not be one. However, I would like to derive precise predictions about them, which is where I am stuck now.
I found other problems with asymmetric random walks with equal integer step sizes. However, I am unsure if I can still use the same ways in this environment. Also, would it be a completely different problem in an environment where the step sizes are irrational numbers?

First, notice that we can replace the transition probabilities by "increases by $a$ or decreases by $b$ with equal probability".
Also, we can scale: $a=3$, $b=5$, we start at $X_0=-4$ and we "win" when we reach $X_n=0$ for some $n$.
For $z=1,2,3 \cdots$, let $g(z)$ be the probability of winning given that we are currently at $X=-z$. Then we can write the recursion
$$g(z) = \frac{g(z-3)+g(z+5)}{2} \tag 1 $$ with $g(z)=1$ for $z\le 0$. And we can assume, from your argument, that $g \to 0$ as $ z \to + \infty$.
We are interested in $g(4)$.
I'm not sure if $(1)$ can be solved in some simple closed form (I doubt it). The standard approach of postulating a candidate solution in the form $g(z)=a b ^z$ gives $b=0.87762789$ (solution of $x^8+ 1 - 2 x ^3=0$), but that would only work if we had the single boundary condition $g(0)=1$; here we also need $g(-1)=g(-2)=1$.
We can instead use $g(z)= b^z$ as an initial guess and iterate numerically using $(1)$. It indeed converges, fairly quickly. And for large $z$, it seems that indeed $g(z) \approx a b^z$ with $a \approx 0.8928175$. But for small $z$, it's other story.
Numerically, I get $g(4) \approx 0.5013472$
PS: some pointers in this MO question
PS2: A quite precise numerical fit:
$$g(n) \approx a b^n + c b^{2n} \sin\left( \frac{2 \pi n}{T} + d\right) $$
with $a=0.8928175$ $b=0.87762789$, $c=0.116$, $T=3.047$, $d=1.952$