By the Binomial expansion for integer powers,
$$ (A+B)^n = \sum_{k=0}^n {n\choose{k}} A^{n-k} B^{k}$$
(I'm assuming $A,B\ge 0$) and so we get the easy estimate $A^n + B^n \le (A+B)^n$ for any positive integer $n$.
Now what happens when we take $n$ to be non-integer? Well if $0<n\le1$, then we have the reverse inequality, $$(A+B)^n \le A^n + B^n ,\qquad {(0<n\le 1)} $$
What about if $n>1$ is a non-integer? Can we still say $A^n + B^n \le (A+B)^n$? I'm pretty sure the answer is yes, but I wanted to check with you guys. Here is my quick argument. Let $n = p + \alpha$ where $p \in \mathbb{N}$ and $0<\alpha<1$.
\begin{align} A^n+B^n &= A^\alpha A^p + B^\alpha B^p \\ &\le \text{max}(A^\alpha,B^\alpha) (A^p+B^p) \\ &\le \text{max}(A^\alpha,B^\alpha) (A+B)^p \\ &\le (A+B)^\alpha (A+B)^p \\ &= (A+B)^n\end{align}
Alt. hint: $\;\displaystyle \left(\frac{A}{A+B}\right)^n + \left(\frac{B}{A+B}\right)^n \le \frac{A}{A+B}+\frac{B}{A+B}=1\,$ when $\,n \ge 1\,$.