In birthday problem say total number of people n < 365, then probability of all person having distinct birthday is given by,
$$\frac{\text{total no. of ways of selecting $n$ numbers from $365$ without repetition}} {\text{total number of ways of selecting n object from 365 with repetition}}. $$
$$p = \frac{^{365}C_n}{^{365-1+n}C_n}$$
I know, that this is wrong, but don't know why.
I want to know why is it wrong?
Can this problem be solved using $^nC_r$ calculations, if not, why?
It can't be purely solved by binomial coefficients because the right expression is $$ \frac{365}{365} \times \frac{364}{365} \times \cdots \times \frac{365-n+1}{365}=\frac{365!}{(365-n)! 365^n} $$ (first trial doesn't collide with existing birthdays (empty set), second doesn't collide with probability 364/365, etc.) and the power term in the denominator stops it being reduced to only binomial coefficients.
Edit: The process is sequential, so let's compute the probability by taking order into account.
If you take the total number of ways of selecting $r$ objects from $n$ without repetition where the order is important and then divide by the total number of ways of selecting $n$ objects where the order is important you get $$n!/(n-r)! $$ divided by $$n^r$$ which will give the right answer $$\frac{n(n-1)\cdots (n-r+1)}{n^r}$$ (for you $n=365,$ and $r=n$).