Let $f:\mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}$ with $|| \nabla f(x)|| \leq M$ (say it is the Euclidean norm), then f is Lipschitz.
I have seen proofs that do this for the case where $f:\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ by applying the mean value theorem. I am wondering if there is a proof available that shows how the mean value theorem is applied to the problem for a function from $f:\mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}$?
I don't understand where is your problem. This is exactcly the same proof in higher-dimension.
By the mean value theorem we have :
$$\| f(x) - f(y) \| \leq \sup_{x \in \mathbb{R}^n} \| \nabla f(x) \| \|x -y \| \leq M \| x - y\|$$