I am trying to verify the following inequality that I came across while reviewing some analysis exercises online:
$$ \sum_{n=1}^{k} \left(1-\frac{n}{k}\right)n^{-1/7}\leq \int_{0}^{k}\left(1-\frac{x}{k}\right)x^{-1/7}\,dx, \hspace{3mm} k>1 $$
$\textbf{My question:}$ Why does the above inequality hold? Isn't the integral on the right an improper integral?
My idea was to justify the inequality by replacing $0$ with a small positive number and then using concavity of the function $f(x)=(1-x/k)x^{-1/7}$ but since the function is concave up I am having a hard time justifying it.
Setting the scene: define $f_k(x) = (1-\frac xk)x^{-1/7}$, so that the inequality in question is $\sum_{n=1}^k f_k(n) \le \int_0^k f_k(x)\,dx$. This inequality is of course equivalent (for $k\ge1$) to $$ f_k(1) + \sum_{n=2}^k f_k(n) \le \int_0^1 f_k(x)\,dx + \int_1^k f_k(x)\,dx. $$ Since the OP indicated that they're comfortable with the inequality $\sum_{n=2}^k f_k(n) \le \int_1^k f_k(x)\,dx$ (since $f_k$ is decreasing), let's focus on the inequality $$ f_k(1) \le \int_0^1 f_k(x)\,dx $$ that contains the improper integral.
The main point: I claim that the fact that the integral is improper is really a red herring. Indeed, this last inequality is equivalent to $$ f_k(1) - f_k(1) \le \int_0^1 f_k(x)\,dx - f_k(1), $$ or simply $$ 0 \le \int_0^1 \big( f_k(x) - f_k(1) \big) \,dx. $$ And, improper or not, this inequality is obvious because the integrand is nonnegative (again since $f_k$ is decreasing).