I have two distinct probabilities, the old one is p1=0.72 and the new one is p2=0.84. I have to calculate the p-value of the benefit of the new probability. How do I calculate this?
2026-02-23 15:31:27.1771860687
Calculate p-val of new probability vs old probability
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Suppose you have two groups 1 and 2. The respective observed success rates are $\hat p_1 = x_1/n_1$ and $\hat p_2 = x_2/n_2,$ where $x_i$ is the number of successes out of $n_i$ in group $i.$ Then you want to test $H_0: p_1 = p_2$ against $H_2: p_i \ne p_2$ at the 5% level of significance. That is, you want a test to compare these two binomial proportions. You can google 'test of binomial proportions' for various versions of such tests.
One of them is
prop.testin R statistical software. If you have $x_1 = 76$ successes out of $n_1 = 200$ trials in Group 1 and $x_2 = 99$ successes out of $n_2 = 310$ trials in Group 2, then the test gives the results shown below. [I have declined the continuity correction because sample sizes, essentially in the hundreds, are sufficiently large.]The P-value $0.159 > 0.05 = 5\%$ indicates that the proportions $\hat p_1 = 0.38$ and $\hat p_2 = 0.32,$ while different, are not enough different to be called significantly different at the 5% level. With samples of this size, one might find sample proportions $\hat p_i$ this far apart about 16% of the time--even if there is no real difference between $p_1$ and $p_2.$ A 95% confidence interval for $p_1 - p_2$ is $(-0.024, 0.146),$ which includes $0.$
This test in R is very nearly the same as a chi-squared test of the contingency table below, for different proportions of successes. In the table
TABbelow, rows are for Successes and Failures and Columns are four Groups 1 and 2.Then a 'chi-squared test' for a $2 \times 2$ table, in R gives the output below. If you are not familiar with such chi-squared tests and if they are not explained in your statistics text, then you can google that as well.
Notice that the P-value is the same as in the test of binomial proportions shown above. The former may be easier to understand and the chi-squared test may be more widely explained in textbooks and online.
Notes: (1) As @MarkoLalovic has commented: You really can't compare two binomial proportions without knowing the sample sizes $n_1$ and $n_2.$ If you had exactly the same proportions with three times as many observations in each group, then those proportions would be very highly significantly different with a P-value near $0.$
(2) If there is something in the context of this problem/information that leads you to believe that there were at least 100 trials in each of the two groups, then you have a significant difference at level 6% level, for the two proportions you provide:
(3) if the old value $p = 0.72$ is well-established, and you are comparing new proportion $\hat p = 84/100,$ then an exact
binom.testin R shows strong evidence that the new value is larger:Even $\hat p = 42/50 = 0.84$ differs significantly from $0.72$ at the 5% level. [But not $\hat p = 21/25.]$