Given $X\sim \mathrm{Geom}(\frac 1 2), Y\sim \mathrm{Geom}(\frac 1 6)$ (starting with $1$, not $0$), I need to calculate $E(\max\{X,Y\})$ using the tail theorem.
The following picture shows my solution:
What bothers me, is that I wouldn't expect the answer to be less than $6$, which is the mean of $Y$.
What do you think? Is there a mistake in my solution or does this make sense somehow?

For one thing, your formula for $F(x)$ is valid only when $x$ is an integer. Because these are integer-valued random variables, $F$ is piecewise constant. Consequently I'd re-write the integral as a discrete sum.
$$ F(x) = 1 - \left( \frac 5 6 \right)^{\lfloor x \rfloor} - \left( \frac 1 2 \right)^{\lfloor x\rfloor} + \left( \frac 5 {12} \right)^{\lfloor x\rfloor} \text{ for }x\ge 0. $$
Since $\Pr(\max\{X,Y\}\ge Y)=1$ and $\Pr(\max\{X,Y\}> Y)>0$, certainly you have $\operatorname{E}(\max\{X,Y\})>\operatorname{E}(Y) = 6$.
The interval of constancy of $F(x)$ for $x\ge0$ is $[n,n+1)$ for $n\in\{0,1,2,\ldots\}$. Then integral of a constant from $n$ to $n+1$ is just that constant. So you have
$$ \int_0^\infty 1-F(x)\,dx = \sum_{n=0}^\infty (1-F(n)). $$