Regards, I found a question below and would like to test my view on this.
Question : The probability of a driver will not experience any loss event in one year ahead is $ 90 \%.$ In one year, it is known that the driver experience an event of loss of $X$ amount. The loss density function is below : $$ f(x) = 2 e^{-2x}, \:\: 0 < x < \infty $$ What is the expected loss at that year?
an Answer : I may see this as conditional expectation : $$ E[X | L] = \int_{0}^{ \infty } x f_{X|L}(x) \: dx $$ with $L$ is the event of experiencing any loss in that year. An argument would be that the conditional pdf is : $$ f_{X|L}(x) = \frac{ f(x) }{ P(L) } = \frac{f(x)}{0.1} $$ $$ E[X | L] = \int_{0}^{ \infty } x f_{X|L}(x) \: dx = 10 \int_{0}^{\infty} 2x e^{-2x} dx = 5 $$
But the official answer to this particular question was set to $0.05$. May I have some inputs on this question, thanks. All the best.
Let $X$ be the loss (amount), $X\sim \mathcal{E}xp(2)$ and $L$ a Bernoulli random variable with $p=0.1$, thus the expected loss can be calculated by the total expectation formula $$ E[X] = E[E[X|L]] = 0\times0.9 + 0.1\times E[X|L] = 0.1E[X] = 0.1\times\frac{1}{2} = 0.05. $$