I want to calculate the volume of the solid obtained by rotating the function $1/z$ about the $z$-axis for $z>1$, that is $\pi$. But I want to apply that: \begin{equation*} V = 4\int \int_{\mathcal{S}} f(x,y) \,\text{d}x\text{d}y, \end{equation*} where \begin{equation*} z = f(x,y) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2}}, \end{equation*} and the region $\mathcal{S}$ is $x^2+y^2<1$ for the first quadrant.
We change $x=r\cos\theta$ and $y=r\sin\theta$. Then \begin{equation*} V = 4\int \int_{\mathcal{S}} f(x,y) \,\text{d}x\text{d}y = 4\int \int_{\mathcal{T}} f(r,\theta) \frac{\partial(x,y)}{\partial(r,\theta)}\,\text{d}r\text{d}\theta. \end{equation*} Since $f(r,\theta)=1/r$ and $\frac{\partial(x,y)}{\partial(r,\theta)}=r$ we obtain \begin{equation*} V = 4\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \text{d}\theta \int_{0}^{1} \text{d}r = 2\pi \neq \pi \end{equation*}
Why I can't apply that method? Thanks.
That's because $z = f(x, y)$ is the vertical distance from xy-plane to a point on the surface. You need to measure the vertical distance from plane $z = 1$.
So the integral should be,
$V = \displaystyle \iint_{x^2 + y^2 \leq 1} (f(x,y) - 1) ~ dx ~ dy$
$ \displaystyle = 4 \int_0^{\pi/2}\int_0^1 r \cdot \left(\frac 1 r - 1\right) ~ dr ~ d\theta = \pi$