I'm trying to calculate using the bayes theorem the exercise below.
But Im confused.
In one company, 40% of the employees are women. Suppose 60% of men workers are married, and 40% of women workers are married. How likely is a married worker to be a man?
What is the correct answer? I found about 0.69.
36/52. that's right?
Indeed:
$P(man|married) = \frac{P(married/man) \cdot P(man)}{P(married/man) \cdot P(man) + P(married/woman) \cdot P(woman)} = \frac{0.6 \cdot 0.6}{0.6 \cdot 0.6 + 0.4 \cdot 0.4}=\frac{9}{13}$
So you are right!