Here is a sketch of the problem statement : A cube of edge length $l$ is placed in three dimensional space with one vertex at the origin ${(0,0,0)}$ and all the faces parallel to the (Cartesian) coordinate planes. The cube lies entirely in the first "octant". Calculate the solid angle subtended by the cube face parallel to $YZ$ plane at the point $(0,0,l)$. There are two such faces parallel to the $YZ$ plane. The face I am referring to is one which does not have any of its vertices at the origin.
I apologize for not providing a drawing of the situation. I have a decent idea of "solid angle" concept, but I am not very familiar with tricky definite integrals for area and volume calculations. I can intuitively (and crudely) approximate solid angle by elementary methods, but I just can not use integrals for exact solid angle calculation. Can anyone help ? I can project the cube face on a spherical surface centered at $(0,0,l)$ and use the projected area to calculate solid angle. But how to calculate this projected area? I am unable to setup some suitable expression for the infinitesimal projected area $dA$. I just want a hint to start with. Thanks in advance.
Imagine $8$ such cubes cuddling at $(0,0,0)$. Together they have an outer surface of $6\cdot4=24$ unit squares, and each such square encompasses the same solid angle with respect to $(0,0,0)$. The solid angle per unit quare therefore is $${4\pi\over24}={\pi\over6}\ ,$$ which is the answer to your question.
In order to compute this solid angle via an integral I put $l=1$ and write the projection in the form $${\bf f}:\quad (x,y,1)\mapsto{1\over\sqrt{1+x^2+y^2}}(x,y,1)\qquad\bigl((x,y)\in Q:=[0,1]^2\bigr)\ .$$ Now use $x$ and $y$ as parameters when computing the area of the surface $S:={\bf f}(Q)$. Compute ${\bf f}_x$, ${\bf f}_y$, and then the surface element $${\rm d}\omega=|{\bf f}_x\times{\bf f}_y|={1\over(1+x^2+y^2)^{3/2}}\>{\rm d}(x,y)\ .$$ (Deriving this result "geometrically" would of course require less computation.) It follows that $${\rm area}(S)=\int_0^1\int_0^1 {1\over(1+x^2+y^2)^{3/2}}\>dx\>dy\ .$$ I didn't do this integral myself. Mathematica computed $$\int_0^1{1\over(1+x^2+y^2)^{3/2}}\>dy={1\over(1+x^2)\,\sqrt{2+x^2}}$$ ad then arrived at the final result ${\pi\over6}$, as expected.