$$\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0^{\hspace{.02 in}+}} \: (x\ln(x)) =\ ?$$
This should be $0$ times $-\infty$, so I believe it's indeterminate in this form, but I don't know how to solve the problem any further than this, if it is possible.
Thank you for any help.
It's zero.
Trivial explanation: the logarithm is a very sloooow function, whereas $x$ is not, hence $x$ dominates.
Non trivial explanation: you can use Hôpital rule after having rewritten it in a smart way as
$$\lim_{x\to 0^+} \frac{\ln(x)}{\frac{1}{x}}$$
A brutal substitution leads you to a Hôpital form $-\infty/\infty$. Applying Hôpital:
$$\lim_{x\to 0^+} \frac{\frac{1}{x}}{-\frac{1}{x^2}} = \lim_{x\to 0^+} -x = 0$$