$$\sum\limits_{x=0}^{\infty} p(1-p)^x \cdot \mathrm{e}^{-\alpha x} \overbrace{=}^{(1)}\, (1-p) \sum\limits_{x=0}^{\infty} p^x \mathrm{e}^{-\alpha x}$$
Why one can put $(1-p)$ before the sum although there is the $x$ as an exponent. Any hints?
2026-03-28 06:06:48.1774678008
Calculation of infinite sum
43 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in CALCULUS
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