I have a lottery of 60 numbers to chose from, 6 winning numbers are selected, with no repetitions. You win if you get 6 (jackpot), 5, 4, 3, 2 or 1 of the correct numbers.
You can chose to play 6 numbers(minimum), 7, 8, 9, ... up to 15 numbers.
I'm trying to calculate the odds (1 in x) of getting 1, 2, 3 up to 6 numbers in all different modes of the game, 6, 7, 8, ... 15.
For the first ones it's easy:
C60,6 = odds of winning the jackpot with 6 numbers bet
C60,6 / ( C6,5 * C54,1) = odds of winning the 5s with 6 numbers
C60,6 / ( C6,4 * C54,2) = odds of winning the 4s with 6 numbers
C60,6 / ( C6,3 * C54,3) = odds of winning the 3s with 6 numbers
C60,6 / ( C6,2 * C54,4) = odds of winning the 2s with 6 numbers
C60,6 / ( C6,1 * C54,5) = odds of winning the 1s with 6 numbers
Then for the game with 7 numbers is similar
C60,6 / ( C7,6) = odds of winning the jackpot with 7 numbers
C60,6 / ( C7,5 * C53,1) = odds of winning the 5s with 7 numbers
C60,6 / ( C7,4 * C53,2) = odds of winning the 4s with 7 numbers
C60,6 / ( C7,3 * C53,3) = odds of winning the 3s with 7 numbers
C60,6 / ( C7,2 * C53,4) = odds of winning the 2s with 7 numbers
C60,6 / ( C7,1 * C53,5) = odds of winning the 1s with 7 numbers
And so on up to 15
C60,6 / ( C15,6) = odds of winning the jackpot with 15 numbers
C60,6 / ( C15,5 * C45,1) = odds of winning the 5s with 15 numbers
C60,6 / ( C15,4 * C45,2) = odds of winning the 4s with 15 numbers
C60,6 / ( C15,3 * C45,3) = odds of winning the 3s with 15 numbers
C60,6 / ( C15,2 * C45,4) = odds of winning the 2s with 15 numbers
C60,6 / ( C15,1 * C45,5) = odds of winning the 1s with 15 numbers
But the values I get don't make sense.
For instance the values I get for the 1s is: N is the number of numbers played.
N Prob
6 2.638 [C60,6 / ( C6,1 * C54,5)]
7 2.492
8 2.408
9 2.368
10 2.363 [C60,6 / ( C10,1 * C50,5)]
11 2.387
12 2.436
13 2.511
14 2.609
15 2.732 [C60,6 / ( C15,1 * C45,5)]
This doesn't make sense. I have a greater chance of getting just 1 number right by playing 10 numbers then I have playing 11, 12, 13, 14 and 15. And 15 is the worst of them all, even 6 numbers is better.
What am I doing wrong?

This makes perfect sense. You're not computing the odds of getting at least one number correct; you're computing the odds of getting exactly one number correct. Given that one tenth of the numbers $1$ through $60$ are selected by the lottery, you'd expect that your chances of getting exactly one number correct are maximized when you choose ten numbers. And that turns out to be true, as you found.
Consider what would happen if you chose $56$ numbers. What then would be your odds of getting exactly one number correct?