For example, $f_1(z)$ and $f_2(z)$ are some multi-valued functions. Is it possible for there to exists a single-valued function $f(z)$ such that$$f(z) = f_1(f_2(z))$$ If so can you please give an example?
2026-03-26 14:20:38.1774534838
Can a compound functions of multi-valued functions result in a single-valued function?
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