Does the two variable function f have only one root?

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‎Alzer (2000) obtained the following new sharp upper bounds for Bernoulli numbers‎ ‎\begin{equation}‎ ‎|B_{2n}|\leq\frac{2(2n)!}{(2\pi)^{2n}}‎ ‎\cdot \frac{1}{1-2^{\beta-2n}}, n\geq1\qquad‎ ‎\end{equation}‎ ‎where‎ $‎\beta=2+{\frac{\log(1-\frac{6}{\pi^2})}{\log2}}=0.6491\cdots.$ Now we compute $\mu$ as follows to obtain new data for our research $$\mu=\frac{1}{2-2^{\beta-1}}=0.833 \cdots.$$ And we define function $f$ as below $$f(x,y)=(\frac{\mu-1}{x}-\frac{1}{\pi})e^{xy}+\frac{1}{\pi-x}(e^{\pi y}-1)-\frac{\mu}{\pi-x}\sinh(\pi x)+\frac{1-\mu}{x},\\ (x,y) \in (0,\pi )\times(0,+\infty).$$ With recent investigations we observed that $f$ has a root less than 0.2. Now I have these questions:

1.Does $f$ have at most one root in its domain?

2.Is it true that $x_0 \in R$ exists such that $0< x_0<\frac{1}{2}$ and $f(x,y)>0$ holds?

3.Does $f_y(x,y)$ have any root on its domain?

Appreciate any suggestion or solution.