Suppose that $V:\mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}$ is a smooth function such that $\nabla V : \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}^n$ has no equilibria (i.e. $\forall x \in \mathbb{R}^n : \nabla V (x) \not = 0$). Under these hypotheses, is it possible that $\nabla V (x)$ can point in every direction?
To be more precise, under the above hypotheses the map $$\mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{S}^{n-1} $$ $$x \mapsto \frac{\nabla V(x)}{\|\nabla V (x)\|} $$ is well-defined. Is it impossible for such a map to be surjective? If not, what is a counterexample?

A quick solution for $n=2$, and an explanation of where it came from: $$\nabla (e^x \sin y) = (e^x \sin y, e^x \cos y).$$ The right hand side is never zero, but does assume every nonzero value in $\mathbb{R}^2$.
Motivation: If $f: \mathbb{C} \to \mathbb{C}$ is holomorphic, then $\nabla(\mathrm{Re}(f)) = (\mathrm{Re}(f'), -\mathrm{Im}(f'))$. I looked for an $f'$ (namely $e^z$) which takes $\mathbb{C}$ onto $\mathbb{C}_{\neq 0}$, and then integrated it to find $f$.
Inspired by this, let's try $$\nabla(e^{x_0} \cos(x_1^2+x_2^2+\cdots + x_n^2)) =$$ $$e^{x_0} (\cos(x_1^2+\cdots + x_n^2), - x_1 \sin(x_1^2+\cdots + x_n^2), \cdots, -x_n \sin(x_1^2+\cdots + x_n^2)).$$
First, we note that the gradient is not zero. The first coordinate only vanishes if $x_1^2+ \cdots + x_n^2$ is of the form $(2k+1) \pi$. But, in this case, at least one of $x_1$, $x_2$, ..., $x_n$ are nonzero; say $x_j$. Then $- x_j \sin(x_1^2+\cdots + x_n^2) = \pm x_j \neq 0$.
Now, let's take a nonzero vector $(v_0, \ldots, v_n)$. We need to go through cases.
If $v_0 = 0$, choose $(x_1, \ldots, x_n)$ proportional to $(v_1, \ldots, v_n)$ and such that $\sin(x_1^2+\cdots+x_n^2)$ has the right sign.
If $v_1 = \cdots = v_n = 0$ and $(-1)^k v_0>0$, take $x_1^2+\cdots+x_n^2 = k \pi$.
If neither of those cases holds, we'll take $(x_1, \ldots, x_n)$ of the form $(t v_1, \ldots, t v_n)$ for some $t$ to be determined soon. Set $s = x_1^2+ \cdots + x_n^2$. Then our vector points in direction $\pm (- \cot(t^2 s), v_1, v_2, \ldots, v_n)$. Since cotangent is surjective, we can choose $t$ such that $\cot (t^2 s) = v_0$, and we can get the sign right.