Consider $\mathbb{R}^2$ with the included point topology (open subsets are those containing $(0,0)$); and $\mathbb{R}$ with the same topology (open subsets are those containing $0$). Now consider the product topology $\mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{R}$ with each one having the topology explained before.Can $\mathbb{R}×\mathbb{R}$ and $\mathbb{R}^2$ be homeomorphic with this topology?
I can only think about trying to see if it is possible to have a continuous bijection between this two sets and see if it can be an open map, but I'm stuck on proving this, any help would be appreciated, thanks!
The open sets of R$^2$ are { U : (0,0) in U }.
Each open set of R×R is a union of sets of the form U×V where U,V are open with the special point 0 topology of R.
Thus (0,0) is in every open set of R×R.
Furthermore if (0,0) is in U then U is the union of sets for the form
{0}×{0,r}, {0,r}×{0}, r in R. Thus U is open within R×R.
Consequently, as R$^2$ and R×R have identical open sets, the identity map a homeomorphism.