So I'm trying to solve the problem irrational ^ irrational = rational. Here is my proof Let $i_{1},i_{2}$ be two irrational numbers and r be a rational number such that $$i_{1}^{i_{2}} = r$$ So we can rewrite this as $$i_{1}^{i_{2}} = \frac{p}{q}$$ Then by applying ln() to both sides we get $$i_2\ln(i_1) = \ln(p)-\ln(q)$$ which can be rewritten using the difference of squares as $$ i_2\ln(i_1) = \left(\sqrt{\ln(p)}-\sqrt{\ln(q)}\right)\left(\sqrt{\ln(p)}+\sqrt{\ln(q)}\right)$$ so now we have $$i_1 = e^{\sqrt{\ln(p)}+\sqrt{\ln(q)}}$$ $$i_2 = \sqrt{\ln(p)}-\sqrt{\ln(q)}$$ because I've found an explicit formula for $i_1$ and $i_2$ we are done.
So I'm new to proofs and I'm not sure if this is a valid argument. Can someone help me out?
As your proof is currently set up, you would need to show that your explicit formula gives you irrational numbers $i_1,i_2$ for at least one pair of integer values $p,q$. While it is certainly believable (and in fact true) that this is the case, it requires proof.
You're approaching this problem from the wrong mindset. All we need is an example of a pair of irrational numbers satisfying "irrational ^ irrational = rational". It is not necessarily useful to find a "general solution" of any kind.
The classic proof the statement can be summarized as follows: