Can the error term variance ever be estimated without fitting a regression line in a basic linear regression model? I don't understand how this would be possible and why. Because wouldn't you always need the mean square error for that? And for the mean square error, you would need the estimated Y values and hence the regression line?
2026-03-26 01:14:49.1774487689
Can the error term variance ever be estimated without fitting a regression line in a basic linear regression model?
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