I have this equation: $$ (A-2I)(A^2-9I)=0 $$$$ \rightarrow A^3-2A^2-9A+18I=0 /()^* $$$$ \rightarrow (A^*)^3-2(A^*)^2-9A^*+18I=0 $$$$ \rightarrow A^3-2A^2-9A+18I=(A^*)^3-2(A^*)^2-9A^*+18I $$ And got to this: $$ (A^*)^3-2(A^*)^2-9A^*=A^3-2A^2-9A $$
Could this mean that A is normal ($AA^*=A^*A$) or the other way around? and how?
Thanks.
The answer is: no, $A$ does not have to be normal.
A counterexample: take $$ A=\begin{bmatrix}2 & 0 & 1\\0 & 3 & 0\\0 & 0 & -3\end{bmatrix}. $$ It satisfies the matrix equation, but $AA^T\ne A^TA$.
The equation you have $$ (A-2I)(A-3I)(A+3I)=0 $$ simply means that the polynomial $q(x)=(x-2)(x-3)(x+3)$ is annihilating. The conclusion you can get from the equation is that the matrix $A$ has eigenvalues among $2$, $3$ and $-3$ and is diagonalizable. However, it does not have to be unitary diagonalizable (=normal).