Good day everyone,
I was wondering how we could say that if $\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n = c$, and f is continuous, then $\lim_{n \to \infty} f(a_n) = f(c) $
I found this in the bisection method used to prove Bolzano's theorem. Do you know if there is a theorem (and which) or a corollary that explains the above statement? Maybe the reason is obvious but I still do not get it; if anyone could help me I would be so grateful.
Thanks in advance!
Absolutely! There exists $\delta>0$ such that whenever $|x-c|<\delta$, we have $|f(x)-f(c)|<\epsilon$. Since $x_n\to c$, there exists $N\in\mathbb{N}$ such that whenever $n\geq N$, $|x_n-c|<\delta$. Therefore, for all $n\geq N$, $|f(x_n)-f(c)|<\epsilon$. This is what it means to say that $f(x_n)\to f(c)$.