I am studying two separate technical documents which are about the same topic. I would like to know if they are defining certain two variables exactly the same.
In the first document, it defines a $\theta_B$ variable in terms of a positive $K$ variable as
$\theta_B = \arctan\left(K\right) - \arctan\left(\dfrac{1}{K}\right).\quad\quad$ (source, page 11)
In the another document, it calculates $K$ back from $\theta_B$ as
$K=\tan\left(\dfrac{\theta_B}{2} + 45^o\right).\quad\quad$ (source, page 32)
Are these two conversions between $\theta_B$ and $K$ consistent with each other? If yes, how do you get the second formula from the first one?
Consider a right triangle with legs $1$ and $K$:
$\alpha=\arctan K$, $\beta=\arctan \frac{1}{K}$, $\alpha+\beta=\frac{\pi}{2}$.
Then $\theta_B+\alpha+\beta=\theta_B+\frac{\pi}{2}$. On the other hand, $\theta_B+\alpha+\beta=\alpha-\beta+\alpha+\beta=2\alpha$ , hence $K=\tan\left(\frac{\theta_B}{2}+\frac{\pi}{4}\right)$.