Can you assume P(x) = P(y) when proving uniqueness

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Look at this proof: Uniqueness Proof, Discrete Math Help

The first proof is invalid right? There is a mistake when proving uniqueness, I think.

They have proved that there exists $r$ s.t $ar+b=0$, and to prove uniqueness they assume there exists $s$ s.t $as+b=0$, BUT then they just assert $ar+b=as+b$

Here are the three strategies for proving uniqueness: enter image description here

And in none of them you can assume that $P(y) = P(z)$

Why is everyone in the comments saying that it's valid?