In finding the optimal Kalman gain one has to solve the following optimization problem.
$$\min_{K\in\mathbb{R}^{n\times m}} \mathbf{trace}\left(\left(I - KH\right)P\left(I - KH\right)^{\top} + KRK^{\top}\right)$$
where $P \in \mathbb{R}^{n\times n}, R \in \mathbb{R}^{m\times m}$ are positive definite, $I \in \mathbb{R}^{n\times n}$ is the identity matrix and $H \in \mathbb{R}^{m\times n}$ is some matrix. One can simply cast this as a quadratic program by vectorizing all the matrices involved. This can subsequently be cast as a semidefinite program (SDP). What I would like to do is to cast it as an SDP directly. I have
$$\mathbf{trace}\left(\left(I - KH\right)P\left(I - KH\right)^{\top} + KRK^{\top}\right) = \left<HPH^{\top}+R,KK^{\top}\right> - \left<2PH^{\top},K\right>$$
This does not seem to fit in the framework of SDP but I believe there is a trick to make it fit. Furthermore, I also have a constraint $KA + b \geq 0$ where $A \in \mathbb{R}^{m\times n}$ and $b \in \mathbb{R}^n$. I don't know if this makes things more complicated. I would appreciate any tips/help.
It is possible to cast the problem of finding the optimal Kalman gain directly as an SDP as follows. First, note that the following problem is equivalent to the original problem.
$$\min_{K \in \mathbb{R}^{n\times m},Q\in \mathbb{R}^{n\times n}} \mathbf{trace}(Q) \quad \text{s.t.}\quad Q \succcurlyeq \left(\left(I - KH\right)P\left(I - KH\right)^{\top} + KRK^{\top}\right)$$
To see why this is equivalent to the original problem suppose that $K^*,Q^*$ are a solution to the equivalent problem such that $$Q^* \neq \left(\left(I - K^*H\right)P\left(I - K^*H\right)^{\top} + K^*R(K^*)^{\top}\right)$$ But then $$\mathbf{trace}(Q^*) > \mathbf{trace}\left(\left(I - K^*H\right)P\left(I - K^*H\right)^{\top} + K^*R(K^*)^{\top}\right)$$
So now the next step is to cast this equivalent problem as an SDP. We only need Schur complement for this. Recall that $P$ and $R$ are positive definite. We can write $$Q - KRK^{\top} -\left(I - KH\right)P\left(I - KH\right)^{\top} \succcurlyeq 0 \iff \begin{bmatrix}P^{-1} & \left(I - KH\right)^{\top} \\ I - KH & Q - KRK^{\top}\end{bmatrix} \succcurlyeq 0 $$ Applying Schur complement once more we get
$$\begin{bmatrix}P^{-1} & \left(I - KH\right)^{\top} \\ I - KH & Q - KRK^{\top}\end{bmatrix} \succcurlyeq 0 \iff \begin{bmatrix}P^{-1} & \left(I - KH\right)^{\top} & 0\\ I - KH & Q &K \\ 0 & K^{\top} &R^{-1}\end{bmatrix} \succcurlyeq 0$$