The task is to find out if the following sequence converges:
$x_n = 1 + \dfrac{\sin(1)}{1^2} + \dfrac{\sin(2)}{2^2} + \ldots + \dfrac{\sin(n)}{n^2} $
I don't even know what to do, can you help me in any way?
(I know the Cauchy criterion, but can't figure out how to use it in this task)
Cauchy criterion for sequences convergence
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On
Let $S_n =$
$ 1+ \sin(1)/1^1 + \sin(2)/2^2....$
$+\sin(n)/n^2$.
$|S_n| $
$ \le |1|+|\sin(1)/1^2| +....... $
$|sin(n)/n^2| \le \sum_{k=1}^{n} \dfrac {1}{n^2} .$
$\sum_{k=1}^{n}\dfrac{1}{n^2}$ converges.
The series $S_n$ is absolutely convergent, the partial sums of the absolute values of the terms are mon. increasing and bounded above, hence convergent.
$\rightarrow :$
$S_n$ converges.
Note:
$\sum_{k=2}^{n}\dfrac{1}{k^2} \lt \sum_{k=1}^{n}\dfrac{1}{k(k+1)} =$
$\sum_{k=1}^{n}[\dfrac{1}{k} - \dfrac{1}{k+1}] = 1- \dfrac{1}{n+1};$
Hence bounded above , mon increasing:
$\rightarrow: $
$\sum \dfrac{1}{n^2}$convergent.
On
$$\sum_{n\geq 1}\frac{\sin(n)}{n^2} = \text{Im}\,\text{Li}_2(e^i)=-\text{Im}\int_{0}^{e^i}\log(1-x)\frac{dx}{x}=-\text{Im}\int_{1}^{e^i}\log(1-x)\frac{dx}{x}$$ equals $$ -\text{Re}\int_{0}^{1}\log(1-e^{ix})\,dx=\int_{0}^{1}-\log\left(2\sin\frac{x}{2}\right)\,dx $$ which is well approximated by $\int_{0}^{1}-\log(x)\,dx = 1.$ Indeed $$ 2\sin\frac{x}{2} = x\prod_{n\geq 1}\left(1-\frac{x^2}{4n^2\pi^2}\right) $$ so $$ \sum_{n\geq 1}\frac{\sin(n)}{n^2} = 1+\sum_{m\geq 1}\frac{\zeta(2m)}{4^m \pi^{2m} m(2m+1)} $$ and an even better approximation of the LHS is $1+\frac{2}{141+\sqrt{5}}$.
So you know that this series is bounded above by the series with terms $\frac{1}{n^2}$ since $|\sin(x)| \leq 1$. Now notice that $$\frac{1}{n(n+1)} \leq \frac{1}{n^2} \leq \frac{1}{n(n-1)}$$ We also know that $$\sum_{n=1}^{m} \frac{1}{n(n+1)} = \sum_{n=1}^{m} (\frac{1}{n} - \frac{1}{n+1}) = 1-\frac{1}{m+1}$$ Now, this converges to $1$. We also know that $\sum \frac{1}{n^2}$ is of the same nature of $\sum \frac{1}{n(n+1)}$. What can you deduce?