In my lecture notes, it was mentioned that if the Cayley–Hamilton polynomial has a free element then it is invertible. Namely, $P_A(x) = a_n x^n + \dots + a_1 x + a_0$ there $a_0 \neq 0$. Why is it correct?
2026-03-25 06:11:25.1774419085
On
Cayley–Hamilton And Invertible Matrix
1.3k Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
4
There are 4 best solutions below
0
On
If your question is:
if the characteristic polynomial does not have zero as a root, then $T$ is invertible
we can show the contrapositive: if $T$ is not invertible, then it has $0$ as an eigenvalue, and hence $x$ divides the characteristic polynomial.
In particular, we have that $\mathrm{det}(T)=0$, which means that $\det(T-Ix)$ is zero when $x=0$, so $x \mid P_T(x)$.
A concrete example: $$\begin{pmatrix}1&0\\0&0 \end{pmatrix}$$
we can take $$\mathrm{det}\begin{pmatrix}1-x&0\\0&-x \end{pmatrix}=(x^2-x).$$
If $a_0\ne 0$, then Cayley-Hamilton $p(A)=0$ gives an explicit inverse for $A$: \begin{align} I &= -\frac{1}{a_0}(a_n A^{n-1}+a_{n-1}A^{n-2}+\cdots+a_1)A \\ &= A\left(-\frac{1}{a_0}(a_n A^{n-1}+a_{n-1}A^{n-2}+\cdots+a_1)\right)\end{align}