Consider the diagram
$$(*):\;\;\;X_0 \stackrel{i_0}\hookrightarrow X_1 \stackrel{i_1}\hookrightarrow X_2 \stackrel{i_2}\hookrightarrow \cdots $$
in category of topological spaces. Denote $I$ the unit interval $[0,1]$ with the standard topology.
Then we also have
$$(*)\times I:\;\;\;X_0\times I \stackrel{i_0\times 1_I}\hookrightarrow X_1 \times I \stackrel{i_1\times 1_I}\hookrightarrow X_2 \times I \hookrightarrow \cdots $$
and colimits of those two diagrams, which are basically $$\mathrm{colim}(*)=\left(\coprod_{n =0}^\infty X_n\right)/{\sim}, \;\;\; x \sim i_j(x), \; j \in \mathbb{N}, \; x \in X_j,$$ $$\mathrm{colim}((*)\times I)=\left(\coprod_{n =0}^\infty X_n \times I\right)/{\sim}, \;\;\; (x,t) \sim (i_j(x),t), \; j \in \mathbb{N}, \; x \in X_j, t \in I.$$
(Question 0: is this correct?)
I am interested in the map $$f:(\operatorname{colim}(*))\times I \rightarrow \mathrm{colim}((*)\times I)$$ defined as $([x],t)\mapsto [(x,t)]$, where $[-]$ denotes taking the equivalence classes with respect to the considered equivalences. Obviously it is correctly defined as a map.
Question 1: Is this map continous? That is, are the two objects homeomorphic? (I believe one can obtain the inverse map $f^{-1}$ using the universal property of $\mathrm{colim}((*)\times I)$, hence $f^{-1}$ is continuous).
I have more information about the maps $i_j$. For example, they are closed maps.
This is a part of a homework assignment, so I would appreciate hints instead of full answer.
(Maybe some context and motivation: My goal is to define a homotopy $F:\mathrm{colim}(*))\times I \rightarrow \mathrm{colim}(*)$ using easy-to-describe homotopies $F_n:X_n\times I \rightarrow X_{n+1}$, but these induce "only" a map $(\operatorname{colim }F_n): \operatorname{colim}((*)\times I) \rightarrow \operatorname{colim}(*)$, so I am trying to change the domain somehow - so ultimately, I need only the composite map $(\operatorname{colim }F_n) \circ f$ to be continuous.)
I asked a very similar question some time ago. The key fact is the following:
Here $\mathcal R\times \mathsf{1}$ designates the equivalence relation on $X\times Y$ whereby $(x,y)\sim (x',y')$ iff $x\mathcal{R}x'$ and $y=y'$. The proof of continuity is easy, it follows immediately form the universal properties of quotient spaces and products. To finish off your question, let $X=\coprod_nX_n$, $Y=I$ and $\mathcal R$ the equivalence relation defining the colimit of your first diagram. Then the colimit of your second diagram is the quotient space of $X\times I$ (because $\left(\coprod_nX_n\right)\times I$ is canonically isomorphic to $\coprod_n\left(X_n\times I\right)$) by the equivalence relation $\mathcal R\times\mathsf{1}$. The facts from the highlighted paragraph then tell us that the comparison map you defined is a homeomorphism.
This can be extended. The key fact is that the functor $$-\times I:\mathbf{Top}\to\mathbf{Top}$$ has a right adjoint $$\mathbf{Hom}(I,-):\mathbf{Top}\to\mathbf{Top}$$ where $\mathbf{Hom}(I,-)$ sends a space $X$ to the set of all continuous maps $I\to X$ equipped with the compact open topology. The unit interval is core compact (being locally compact Hausdorff). Having a right adjoint, the functor $-\times I$ commutes to all colimits, that is there are isomorphisms in Top (in other words, a homeomorphism) $$\mathrm{colim}_{\,\mathcal{I}}(F)\times I\to\mathrm{colim}_{\,\mathcal{I}}((-\times I)\circ F)$$ for any small diagram $F:\mathcal I\to\mathbf{Top}$.