Is the following a correct way to prove the chain rule. I am in doubt because of how I am presented the proof in other sources that I think over complicates things (the prior statement might be biased) :
Chain Rule: If $f(u)$ is a differentiable at point $u=g(x)$, and $g(x)$ is a differentiable at $x$, then $f(g(x))$ is differentiable at $x$, and $\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{dy}{du}\frac{du}{dx}$, where $\frac{dy}{du}$ is evaluated at $u=g(x)$
Proof:
If $g(t)$ is not $g(x)$ for $t$ near $x$ then: $\frac{dy}{dx}=\lim_{t \to x} \frac{f(g(x))-f(g(t))}{g(x)-g(t)} \times \frac{g(x)-g(t)}{x-t} = f'(g(x)) * g'(x)$
If $g(t)=g(x)$ for $t$ near $x$ then $g'(x)$ is $0$ so $f'(g(x))*g'(x)=0$. However, $\frac{dy}{dx}=\lim_{t \to x} \frac{f(g(x))-f(g(t))}{x-t}=0$ because $g(x)=g(t) \implies f(g(x)) = f(g(t))$.
You cannot divide by $g(t_n) - g(x)$ in the general case. Here is a hint : $f$ is differentiable at $x$ if and only if there exists a function $\varepsilon$ with $\varepsilon(h) \to 0$ as $h\to 0$, and a number $a$ (which is $f'(x)$) such that \begin{align} f(x + h) = f(x) + a h + h \varepsilon(h) \end{align}
Write it for $f$ and $g$, and carefully do the composition.