If $f:X \rightarrow Y$ is differentiate at $x$ and $g:Y \rightarrow Z$ is differentiable at $y = f(x)$, then $g \circ f: X \rightarrow Z$ is differentiable at x and $$F(g\circ f)(x) = Dg(f(x)) Df(x)$$
I am able to prove it for univariate functions or for $\mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ functions, but not for more general spaces such as $X, Y$ And $Z$. Can somebody help me on that?
I will assume that $X,Y,Z$ are Banach spaces. The "easiest" way to prove this, imho, is to use the characterization of differentiability that $f$ is differentiable at $x$ iff there exists a linear map $\mathrm Df(x):X\to Y$ and a remainder $R_{f,x}:X\to V$ such that
$$f(x+h)=f(x)+\mathrm Df(x)(h)+R_{f,x}(h)$$
and
$$\lim_{h\to0}\frac{R_{f,x}(h)}{\Vert h\Vert}=0.$$
Similarly, $g$ is differentiable at $y$ iff there exists a linear map $\mathrm Dg(y):Y\to Z$ and a remainder $R_{g,y}:Y\to Z$ such that
$$g(y+h)=g(y)+\mathrm Dg(y)(h)+R_{g,y}(h)$$
and
$$\lim_{h\to0}\frac{R_{g,y}(h)}{\Vert h\Vert}=0.$$
Now combine these to get
$$\begin{align}g\circ f(x+h)&=g(f(x)+\mathrm Df(x)(h)+R_{f,x}(h))\\ &=g(y+\mathrm Df(x)(h)+R_{f,x}(h))\\ &=g(y)+\mathrm Dg(y)[\mathrm Df(x)(h)+R_{f,x}(h)]+R_{g,y}[\mathrm Df(x)(h)+R_{f,x}(h)]\\ &=g(y)+\mathrm Dg(y)\mathrm Df(x)(h)+\left\{\mathrm D g(y)(R_{f,x}(h))+R_{g,y}[\mathrm Df(x)(h)+R_{f,x}(h)]\right\}. \end{align}$$
If you can show that
$$\lim_{h\to0}\frac{\mathrm D g(y)(R_{f,x}(h))+R_{g,y}[\mathrm Df(x)(h)+R_{f,x}(h)]}{\Vert h\Vert}=0,$$
then you're done (the numerator is the big term in curly brackets above). Because then $\mathrm Dg(y)\mathrm Df(x)$ is the required differential and the term in curly brackets the remainder for $g\circ f$, which is then consequently differentiable with differential $\mathrm Dg(y)\mathrm Df(x)=\mathrm Dg(f(x))\mathrm Df(x)$.