I'm trying to understand a (maybe straightforward) step in the proof of Chebyshev's inequality:
$$ P(|X-\bar X| \geq a) \leq \frac{\sigma^{2}}{a^{2}} \quad (1) $$
The proof starts with the Markov's inequality $$ P(X \geq a) \leq \frac{E[X]}{a} \quad (2) $$
And it is used to prove Chebyshev's inequality by replacing $X$ by $Y = (X - \bar X)^2$, which results in
$$ P((X-\bar X)^2 \geq a^2) \leq \frac{E[(X-\bar X)^2]}{a^{2}} \quad (3) $$
Then it gives (1)
Why is it $a^2$ in the right-hand side $\frac{E[(X-\bar X)^2]}{a^{2}}$ and just not $a$?
You actually use the variable
$$ |X-E(X)|$$
So putting square root in the probability doesn't affected the right term.