Check if $\{f_n\}_{n=1}^{\infty}$ is uniform (or at least pointwise) convergent, where $$f_n(z) = \frac{1}{z^2+\frac 1 n}, f_n: A \to \mathbb C,$$ $$A = \{z \in \mathbb C | |z| < 1, Re(z)>0\}$$ $$\stackrel{\text{I believe}}{=} \{z \in \mathbb C | |z|^2 < 1, Re(z)>0\}$$ $$\stackrel{aka}{=} \{(x,y) \in \mathbb R^2 | x^2+y^2<1, x>0\}$$ i.e. (I believe) the open right half of the unit disc.
- Note: $\frac{n}{nz^2+1} = \frac{1}{z^2+\frac 1 n}$, and I guess $\frac{n}{nz^2+1}$ is very different from $\frac{z}{nz^2+1}$ or $\frac{x}{nx^2+1}$ as in here: Does $f_n(x) = \frac{x}{1 + nx^2}$ converge uniformly for $x \in \mathbb{R}$?
- Is this correct for Pointwise? --> See here: Check if $\{\frac{1}{z^2+\frac 1 n}\}_{n=1}^{\infty}$ is uniform (or at least pointwise) convergent.
- Related question: Complex non-/uniform convergence: About dependence of the index $N$ on modulus $|z|$ vs complex number $z$
- Is this correct for Uniform? (Again, I'll type details as an answer.)
- Related question: Uniform convergence: Question about in/dependence of the indices on other variables
- Quick clarification: Just because the $N$ in proving pointwise convergence is true technically has a '$z$' in its formula, doesn't mean not uniformly convergent right?
I guess yes because in general for a uniformly convergent sequence it's possible we could still find an $N$ that depends on $z$ but another $N$ that doesn't depend on $z$, i.e. we didn't look hard enough or something. After all, the condition for uniform convergence is that we find some large enough index $N$ not that every damn index $N$ is gonna be independent.
Simpler to just try say $z_n=1/n\in A$ (for e.g. $n>2)$, since things are going real bad near zero. $$f(1/n)-f_n(1/n)=\frac1{1/n^2}-\frac1{1/n^2+1/n}=n^2-\frac{n^2}{1+n}>n^2-\frac {n^2}{0+n}=n(n-1)> n. $$ Hence $\sup_{z\in A}|f(z)-f_n(z)|>n$.