Check if $\{f_n\}_{n=1}^{\infty}$ is uniform (or at least pointwise) convergent, where $$f_n(z) = \frac{1}{z^2+\frac 1 n}, f_n: A \to \mathbb C,$$ $$A = \{z \in \mathbb C | |z| < 1, \Re(z)>0\}$$ $$\stackrel{\text{I believe}}{=} \{z \in \mathbb C | |z|^2 < 1, \Re(z)>0\}$$ $$\stackrel{aka}{=} \{(x,y) \in \mathbb R^2 | x^2+y^2<1, x>0\}$$ i.e. (I believe) the open right half of the unit disc.
- Note: $\frac{n}{nz^2+1} = \frac{1}{z^2+\frac 1 n}$, and I guess $\frac{n}{nz^2+1}$ is very different from $\frac{z}{nz^2+1}$ or $\frac{x}{nx^2+1}$ as in here: Does $f_n(x) = \frac{x}{1 + nx^2}$ converge uniformly for $x \in \mathbb{R}$?
- Is this correct for Pointwise? (I'll type details as an answer.)
- Related question: Complex non-/uniform convergence: About dependence of the index $N$ on modulus $|z|$ vs complex number $z$
- Is this correct for Uniform? --> See here: Check if $\{\frac{1}{z^2+\frac 1 n}\}_{n=1}^{\infty}$ is uniform convergent.
- Related question: Uniform convergence: Question about in/dependence of the indices on other variables
- Quick clarification: Just because the $N$ in proving pointwise convergence is true technically has a '$z$' in its formula, doesn't mean not uniformly convergent right?
I guess yes because in general for a uniformly convergent sequence it's possible we could still find an $N$ that depends on $z$ but another $N$ that doesn't depend on $z$, i.e. we didn't look hard enough or something. After all, the condition for uniform convergence is that we find some large enough index $N$ not that every damn index $N$ is gonna be independent.
Of course, pointwise convergence is very easy to check: fix $z\in A$, and then investigate the convergence of the real sequence $(f_n(z))_n$. This sequence indeed converges, towards the limit value $f_\infty (z) = \frac{1}{z^2}$.
Now suppose $f_n$ converges uniformly. Then its limit is necessarily $f_\infty$. However, we have:
$$ | f_n(z) - f_\infty(z)| = \frac{1}{z^2(nz^2+1)}$$
which CANNOT be bounded independently of $z$ since (for instance) :
$$| f_n(\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}) - f_\infty(\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}})| = \frac{n}{2}$$
Which goes to infinity as $n$ goes to infinity. So the series is not uniformly convergent.