My attempt for the following question:
My attempt:
$H_1^\Delta(T)=\frac{\ker\partial_1}{\text{im }\partial_2}=\frac{<c,b-a>}{<a-b-c,a-b+c>}=\frac{\mathbb{Z}\oplus\mathbb{Z}}{\mathbb{Z}\oplus\mathbb{Z}}=0$, since the space generated by two generators is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}\oplus\mathbb{Z}$.
Is my working correct?
The question is taken from Hatcher's page 106-107.
My doubts:
I understand almost every of the given solution, but what confuses me is how can the fact the $\text{im }\partial_2$ is an index-two subgroup of $\ker\partial_1$ implies $H_1^\Delta(T)=\mathbb{Z}_2$?
It is written that $\partial_2$ is injective, my other question is whether the boundary homomorphism $\partial_i$ is always injective?
Could someone please give some light on this? Helps are really appreciated. Thanks!



If you play with the algebra, $\langle c, b-a \rangle = \langle c, b-a-c \rangle$ and $\langle a-b-c,a-b+c \rangle = \langle a-b-c,b-a-c \rangle = \langle -2c,b-a-c\rangle = \langle 2c,b-a-c \rangle$ so the result is: $$H_1(\mathbb{R}P^2) = \frac{ \langle c, b-a-c \rangle}{\langle 2c,b-a-c \rangle} \cong \mathbb{Z}_2$$
$\partial_i$ is not always injective. If so, ker $\partial_1$ would be zero in this case :)