Given Γ = {p, p → q, q → ¬p, ¬(r ↔ q)} and α = r ∨ q.
I have to check whether Γ |= α for the given Γ and α. My solution -
Let V be an arbitrary valuation such that V |= Γ.
This implies V |= p and V |= (p → q).
Therefore, V(p) = T and V(p → q) = T.
Therefore, V(q) = T.
Now, V(p) = T and V(q) = T.
Therefore, V(q → ¬p) = F.
Does this mean that Γ is unsatisfiable, and thus Γ does not entail α? Correct me if I'm wrong.
The argument is fine but the conclusion is wrong.
Due to the fact that the set $\Gamma$ is unsatisfiable (as you have shown), and due to the definition of logical implication (in this case : tautological implication) [see Herbert Enderton, A Mathematical Introduction to Logic (2nd ed, 2001), page 23] :
we have that in the case in which no truth assignment satisfies every member of $\Gamma$, then for any $\alpha$, it is vacuously true that $\Gamma \vDash \alpha$.
Note : see Vacuous truth.
We have that the above definition is a conditional :
In our example, the antecedent is false; thus, the conditional is true.