So I have the following function to which i should check the convergence: $$\int_{1}^{+\infty} \frac{\arctan(-e^{x})}{\sin(\frac{1}x{})}$$
I thought that one way to do it was with a comparison test. I thought that the values of the function $\arctan(-e^x)$ lie between $\frac{\pi}{2}$ and $0$. Therefore:
$$ \int_{1}^{+\infty} \frac{\arctan(-e^{x})}{\sin(\frac{1}x{})} \leq \int_{1}^{+\infty} \frac{0}{\sin(\frac{1}{x})} \leq 0 $$
And since the integral of $0$ converges than by comparison, our integral, which is smaller, must also converge. Would this logic make any sense?
Thank you in advance for your help,
Annalisa
The comparison test would say if $0 \le a(x) \le b(x)$ and $\int_1^\infty b(x)\; dx$ converges then so does $\int_1^\infty a(x)\; dx$. But in this case $a(x) < 0$.