The following is a excerpt from RSA Decryption correctness proof (section 4) :
$$\begin{align} C^d &\equiv M\pmod {p} \tag{1}\\ C^d &\equiv M\pmod {q} \tag{2} \end{align}$$ Now by the Chinese Remainder Theorem, since $\gcd(p, q) = 1$ ($p$ and $q$ are different primes), there is exactly one number mod $pq$ that has properties $(1)$ and $(2)$ – it is $M \pmod{pq}$. So $C^d\equiv M\pmod {pq}$.
Question : How is that number $M\pmod {pq}$ ?
$M$ is an integer. Suppose $X$ is some integer with the property that $$X\equiv M\bmod p,\qquad X\equiv M\bmod q.$$ The Chinese remainder theorem then says that if $Y$ is any integer such that $$Y\equiv M\bmod p,\qquad Y\equiv M\bmod q$$ then $Y\equiv X\bmod pq$. But obviously, $M$ is an integer with the property that $$M\equiv M\bmod p,\qquad M\equiv M\bmod q.$$ Therefore, any $Y$ such that $$Y\equiv M\bmod p,\qquad Y\equiv M\bmod q$$ must satisfy $Y\equiv M\bmod pq$.