As an exercise I am trying to compute the class group of $\mathbb Q(\sqrt{-35})$.
We have $-35\equiv 1$ mod $4$, so the Minkowski bound is $\frac{4}{\pi}\frac12 \sqrt{35}<\frac23\cdot 6=4$. So we only need to look at the prime numbers $2$ and $3$.
$-35\equiv 5$ mod $8$, so $2$ is inert. Also, $-35\equiv 1$ mod $3$, so $3$ splits, i.e. $(3)=Q\overline Q$ with $Q=(3,1+\sqrt{-35})$, $\overline Q=(3,1-\sqrt{-35})$. The ideals $Q,\overline Q$ are not principal, because there are no solutions to $x^2+35y^2=12$, i.e. no elements of norm 3.
Now we know that there are at most $3$ elements (or do we?), namely $(1),Q,\overline Q$. Mathematica tells me that the class number is $2$, so $Q$ and $\overline Q$ must be in the same equivalence class and $Q^2$ has to be a principal ideal. But how can I show this?
Note that the ring of integers is $\mathbb Z[(1+\sqrt{-35})/2]$.
If you compute $(3, 1 + \sqrt{-35})^2$, you get $$(9,3 + 3\sqrt{-35}, -34 + 2 \sqrt{-35} ) = (9, 1 + \sqrt{-35}) = ( \dfrac{1-\sqrt{-35}}{2} \dfrac{1 + \sqrt{-35}}{2}, 2 \dfrac{1+\sqrt{-35}}{2}) = ((1 + \sqrt{-35})/2 )$$ (because $\dfrac{1-\sqrt{-35}}{2}$ and $2$ are coprime, and so generate the ideal $1$).
I find the computation a bit easier by phrasing the factorization of $(3)$ in the following alternative way: $(3) = (3, (1 + \sqrt{-35})/2) (3,(1- \sqrt{-35})/2)$, and $$(3,(1+\sqrt{-35})/2)^2 = (9, 3(1+\sqrt{-35})/2,(-17+\sqrt{-35})/2) = ( (1+\sqrt{-35})/2 )$$ is principal.
As a consistency check, note that $ (9) = (3) (3) = Q \overline{Q} Q \overline{Q} = Q^2 \overline{Q}^2,$ but also $9 = ( (1+\sqrt{-35})/2) ( ( 1 - \sqrt{-35})/2),$ so we must have $Q^2$ equal to one of $( (1 \pm \sqrt{-35})/2).$