My course notes provide just a brief mention to a common technique used in calculus of variations, but I can't understand it.
Don't expect total rigor, since it's just a mention.
Let $G:X\to \overline{\mathbb{R}}$ be a function where $X$ is a sufficiently regular function space. My notes define $G$ to be coercive iff its sublevels are precompact (I think that this means that its sublevels have compact closure).
My notes then affirm that if $G$ is coercive and lower semicontinous then the accumulation points of minimizing sequences (i.e. sequences $\{x_n\}$ in $X$ such that $G(x_n)\to \inf \ G$) are minimum points. Is this trivial? Because I don't see it.
Moreove is it assured that at least a minimizing sequence has an accumulation point?
I have never studied calculus of variations, so please try to be basic.
Set $m = \inf_{x \in X} G(x)$. By the definition of infimum, we can select $x_n \to x$ such that $G(x_n) \to m$. Since it is coercive, so there exists a subsequence of $\{x_n\}$ such that it is convergent and we still denote this subsequence by $x_n$. Suppose $x_n \to x_0$.
Moreover, $G$ is lower semicontinuous implies $G(x_0) \leq \liminf_{x \to x_0} G(x) \leq \lim_{k \to \infty} G(x_k) = m$.
On the other hand, $m = \inf_{x \in X} G(x) \geq G(x_0)$. So $G(x_0) = m$.