The context for my question is the following:
I was able to prove that $\varinjlim_{i < \mu} X(i) = X(\lambda)$ whenever $\mu = \lambda + 1$. I suspect that $\varinjlim_{i < \mu} X(i) = X(\mu)$ when $\mu$ is a limit ordinal, but I don't know how to prove it. Any help is welcome.