I'm not even convinced that this is true, and I'm hoping that someone can help me to see why it is true.
I am attempting to prove the following:
Consider a metric space $F$ and a set $E$ that is dense in $F$. Show that the set of all open balls in E, centered at $e \in E$ and with rational radii, say $\{B(e, r_i)\}$, are a base for $F$.
To show that $\{B(e, r_i)\}$ is a base for $F$, I'd need to show that for any open set $T \subset F$ and element $t \in T$, there exists a ball $B(e, r_t) \in \{B(e, r_i)\}$ such that the following is true:
$$t \in B(e, r_t) \subset T$$
But, I don't even believe that this is true. If all of the balls in $\{B(e, r_i)\}$ must be centered at a fixed point $e$, then how can one of them always be contained in an arbitrary, open subset of $F$? The picture below is meant to illustrate my confusion.

The correct statement is: if $E$ is dense in $F$, then the set
$$\mathcal{B} = \{B(x,r): x \in E, r \in \mathbb{Q}, r > 0\}$$ is a base for $F$.
So the radii are not a fixed point, but are members of $E$ in general. So they are centered at some $e \in E$..
See the implication 7 -> 1 in this answer for details of the proof itself.