Let's consider this problem:
A bag contains 5 black marbles and 6 white ones. Marbles of the same color are indistinguishable from each other. If I draw two marbles, what is the probability they have different colors?
This problem can be trivial if we reason like this:
$P(first = black, second=white) = P(first = black)*P(second=white|first = black) = \frac{5}{11} * \frac{6}{10} = \frac{3}{11}$
$P(first = white, second=black) = P(first = white)*P(second=black|first = white) = \frac{6}{11} * \frac{5}{10} = \frac{3}{11}$
Hence summing the two $P(\text{both black and white}) = \frac{6}{11}$.
If we frame the problem using combinations we can get the same result using this:
$P(\text{both black and white}) = \frac{\binom{6}{1}\binom{5}{1}}{\binom{11}{2}} = \frac{6}{11}$
This is like the number of combinations of choosing 1 marble from the white, 1 marble from the blacks and divide then by the number of combinations of choosing 2 marbles from the 11.
Is it a coincidence or is it correct this way of solving it? I cannot figure out how I should be allowed to use $\binom{11}{2}$ at denominator since to me there are at most 3 different ways to get a group of two marbles from the 11 namely (BB, BW, WW) and not 55 like $\binom{11}{2}$ states.
Please clarify this.
Well, if you think about it this way, then you should feel uncomfortable with the numerator too. I mean there are only two ways to get $1$ black and $1$ white marble - BW or WB. So why ${6 \choose 1} \times {5 \choose 1}$? And if you take this line of thinking to its conclusion, the probability would be $2/3$ (incorrect, of course). So why $6/11$?
Here's why.
When it comes to probability, "indistinguishability" becomes a tricky concept. The question here states that marbles of the same color are indistinguishable. Does that mean there's only $1$ way to end up with a white marble on the first draw (W) and similarly one to end up with a black marble (B)? Does that mean the probability of drawing a black marble is the same as that of drawing a white one - assuming we draw only one?
The answer to the first question is - yes and no. And that to the second one is a clear no. Let me explain.
Imagine putting your hand inside the bag to draw a marble. Are there only $2$ marbles inside (because there are only two colors and marbles of the same color are indistinguishable)? No, there are $11$ marbles and you can draw any of them. So there are 11 different ways of drawing a marble. $5$ of these ways will give you a black marble and $6$ a white marble?
Yes, the end result of using any of the $5$ ways to draw a black marble would be indistinguishable. You end up with a black marble. But because the number of ways to draw a black marble is $5$ ways compared to the $6$ for a white marble, it's slightly less likely you will draw a black marble. To be precise, $P(B) = 5/11$, whereas $P(W) = 6/11$.
The point is - just by virtue of their separate existence, the marbles are distinguishable. When the question says they are indistinguishable, it's in the context that we don't care which black/white marble is drawn. So if it helps, you can reframe the question in your head as follows.
There are $5$ black marbles and $6$ white marbles. The marbles are all distinct. If I draw two marbles, what is the probability they have different colors?
Think about it, why should the answer to this question be any different from that to the original?