Consider the following identity: $\binom n r = \frac n r \binom {n-1} {r-1}$ where $n \ge r \ge 1$.
It's easy to supply an algebraic proof, but I'm looking for a combinatorial proof. I tried the following:
- Denote by $S$ the set of $r$ objects that we are going to choose. We have $n$ ways to choose an object to put into $S$.
- Now we choose $r - 1$ objects from the remaining $n - 1$ objects, giving $\binom {n-1} {r-1}$. By the multiplication principle, we have $n \binom {n-1} {r-1}$ ways to choose $r$ objects from $n$ objects.
Why doesn't the above proof work? Can anyone supply a clear combinatorial proof for the above identity?
EDIT: Clearly, I have overcounted by a factor of $r$.
EDIT2: I have written an answer to my own question. Let me know if there is anything wrong with it.
Rewrite the statement ${n\choose r}=\frac{n}{r}{n-1\choose r-1}$ into $r{n\choose r}=n{n-1\choose r-1}.$
To prove the latter statement, observe that $LHS$ first chooses an $r$-element set from $n$ elements and then picks an element, named the "representative", from the $r$-element set. Alternatively, $RHS$ first picks an element from the $n$ elements, and there are $n$ ways to do so. Then we choose $r-1$ elements from $n-1$ elements. Combined with the first picked representative, the $r-1$-element set forms a complete $r$-element set.
To sum up, $LHS$ picks an element after choosing a subset; conversely, $RHS$ picks an element before choosing a subset.