Suppose we have a deck of $32$ cards with $8$ cards of each of the four suits. In how ways we can choose six cards such that there are cards of exactly three different suits among the chosen cards?
I believe inclusion-exclusion principle is the way to solve it, where we first count the number of total ways to choose $6$ cards out of $32$ (which is $\binom{32}{6}$), then exclude the number of combinations where exactly two of the suits are missing (which is $\binom{4}{2}\binom{16}{6}$) and then by inclusion-exclusion formula add the combinations where all three suits are missing (which is $\binom{4}{3}\binom{8}{6}$). The number of combinations of all $4$ suits missing is, of course, zero.
My question is - where is my logic incorrect? I know it is, but can't seem to spot the error.
It is better to count the hands that are void in exactly one suit.
If we try $\binom{24}6 - \binom4 2 \binom{16}6 + \binom4 3\binom8 6$, we will get the number of hands void in at least one void suit, since we are only subtracting the overcount of the multiply void ones, whereas to get the number with exactly one void suit, we need to subtract the entire count of the multiply void ones
This number is 4 times the number of hands void in,say,$\;$$ \spadesuit$ which can be combined in $3$ ways to form hands void in $2$ suits, and eliminate the over count by adding the $3$ ways in which the hand can be void in $3$ suits in combination with the $\spadesuit$ to give us $4[\binom{24}6 - 3\binom{16}6 +3\binom8 6]$