Given a standard deck and a random $n$-cards hand the probability of having two of one rank and three of another is given by:
for $n=5$: $$ \frac{{13 \choose 1} {4 \choose 3} {12 \choose 1} {4 \choose 2} }{{52 \choose 5}}$$
(In words, I choose one rank, for which there are 13 ways, then there are 4 ways to get three of a kind in this rank. Next choose any of the remaining ranks and count the ways you can get a pair in that rank ${4 \choose 2}$. Finally divide by the total number of possible hands.)
But what about $n=15$?
Using similiar (naive) logic, just adding that the 10 extra cards can be any combination of the remaining 47, I get a non-sensical value: $$ \frac{{13 \choose 1} {4 \choose 3} {12 \choose 1} {4 \choose 2} {47 \choose 10}}{{52 \choose 15}} > 1$$
My own simulation shows the actual answer is in the neighbourhood of $0.66$.
What is the failed step I have taken?
EDIT1: corrected a typo in the denominator $49 \choose 10$ to $47 \choose 10$...
You have overcounted hands with multiple pairs and three of a kinds, besides that the last factor in your logic should be $47 \choose 10$. If you think of a hand with two three of a kinds and two pairs plus five other cards, you could take either three of a kind to be the one you count and also either pair, so you will count this hand four times. You have also counted cases where there are four of a kind four times for the three of a kind.