Assume I have an infinite sequence $(S_k)_{k\in\mathbb N}$ of sets $S_k\subset \mathbb R^n$, assume that all the $S_k$ are compact with respect to the topology induced by some metric $d:\mathbb R^n\times\mathbb R^n\to\mathbb R$.
The infinite union $\bigcup_{k\in\mathbb N} S_k$ is not necessarely compact. But what could one conclude if all the sets $S_k$ have a common point (i.e. $\bigcap_{k\in\mathbb N} S_k \neq \emptyset$) and they are all subset of a given bounded set $\bar S$?
What if all the $S_k$ are distributed around a given point? (for instance the origin)
The conclusion I want to jump to is that the infinite union is compact. But, that is not true.
Suppose $S_n = \{1,\frac1n\}$
and $\bar S = \{\frac1n: \forall n \in \mathbb N\} \cup \{0\}$
$\bar S$ is compact.
$\bigcap S_k = \{1\}$ i.e. non-empty.
There exists a sequence $\in\bigcup S_k$ that converges to $0.$
$0 \notin \bigcup S_k$
$\bigcup S_k$ is not compact.