I have $X \in L^2$, and I want to show $E[(X-E[X|G])^2] \leq E[(X-E[X])^2]$
All I've tried is expanding and simplifying, which gives me wanting to show:
$E[E[X|G]^2]-2E[XE[X|G]] \leq E[E[X]^2] - 2E[XE[X]]$
I'm not sure where to go from here.
Another thing is I thought $E[X]$ is supposed to minimize $E[(X-\alpha)^2]$, but it seems here we're disproving that by showing $E[X|G]$ does (maybe?) better than $E[X]$ at minimizing.
Is there a way to give an intuitive reason for the thing being proven?
The high road to this result, which explains at the same time your second question, is to note that $$E[(X-E[X])^2]=\inf\{E[(X-a)^2]\,\mid\,a\in\mathbb R\},$$ while $$E[(X-E[X|G])^2]=\inf\{E[(X-Y)^2]\,\mid\,Y\in L^2(G)\},$$ hence the latter, being an infimum on at least as many random variables, is not larger than the former.
Edit: Pushing a little the idea explained by @saz, one sees that Pythagoras theorem implies $$E[(X-E[X])^2]=E[(X-E[X|G])^2]+E[(E[X|G]-E[X])^2].$$