I've recently discovered two conclusions that may be true. However I can't prove it. The statement is as follows :
Suppose $a$, $b$ are positive integers and $a\geq b \geq 2$, then I found this conclusion $a^{b!}<(a^b)!$ might be true. On the other hand, for any $a\geq 2$, there must exist an integer $b_0>a$ ( $b_0$ is related to $a$ ) such that for any $b\geq b_0$ we have $a^{b!}>(a^b)!$ .
I have verified the above conclusion in some cases such as $2^{100!}>2^{100}!$ , $99^{280!}>99^{280}!$ , $100^{100!}<100^{100}!$ , $200^{100!}<200^{100}!$ .
For $a=2$ , we can verify that $2^{5!}>2^{5}!$ is true and $b_0=5$ is the smallest one.
Hint:
Stirling's approximation is what I would use if I care about these $a$ and $b$s being small since this inequality doesn't always hold, otherwise consider this: