Suppose $A$ and $C$ are abelian groups with subgroups $A'$ and $C'$ respectively. Let $f:A\to C$ be a group homomorphism. I was wondering if the following statements are equivalent:
- There exists a homomorphism $g:A'\to C'$ such that $fi=jg.$
- There exists a homomorphism $h:A/A'\to C/C'$ such that $hp=qf.$
$$\begin{array} AA' & \stackrel{i}{\longrightarrow} & A & \stackrel{p}{\longrightarrow} & A/A'\\ \downarrow{g} & & \downarrow{f} & & \downarrow{h} \\ C' & \stackrel{j}{\longrightarrow} & C & \stackrel{q}{\longrightarrow} & C/C' \end{array} $$
where $i$ and $j$ are inclusions, and $p$ and $q$ are projections.
It seems to me that (1) means the restriction of $f$ to $A'$ is g, so to prove (1) implies (2), I define $h(a+A')=f(a)+g(A')$. But $g(A')\neq C'$ in general, and I'm confused about if I made the right definition.
Yes, these statements are equivalent, and you're approach is right. Note only that in order to describe an element of $C/C^{\prime}$, when the latter is realized by $C^{\prime}$-cosets in $C$, you have to put $h(a + A^{\prime}) := f(a) + C^{\prime}$. However, more conceptually you should try to prove the equivalence using universal properties of kernel and cokernel only - this has the advantage of directly generalizing to arbitrary abelian categories.