I've read in a paper and on wikipedia that any (small) category is complete if and only if it is cocomplete. Now obviously if one shows that complete$\implies$cocomplete, then it's easy to conclude from there, but I have no idea why that would be true. Could anyone care to explain it to me ?
2026-03-27 03:48:18.1774583298
Complete categories are cocomplete?
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This is not true in general for a given category $C$. On the other hand, note that $\mathbf{Set}^{C^{op}}$, $is$ complete and cocomplete, and that the Yoneda Lemma provides an embedding $\ y \colon C \rightarrow \mathbf{Set}^{C^{op}}. $ That is, $C$ can be "enlarged" to a category that is complete and cocomplete.